Cisco 400-007 Test Engine Practice Test Questions, Exam Dumps
100% Free 400-007 Daily Practice Exam With 482 Questions
Cisco 400-007, also known as the Cisco Certified Design Expert (CCDE v3.0) Written exam, is a certification exam designed for network architects, engineers, and designers who are looking to validate their advanced knowledge and skills in network design principles, methodologies, and best practices. 400-007 exam measures a candidate's ability to analyze complex network requirements and design solutions that meet business goals and objectives, while also considering technical and budget constraints.
NEW QUESTION # 115
Which security architecture component offers streamlined security operations, ease of use, and visibility across all network security elements, independent of location or form factor?
- A. Threat-centric protection
- B. Central command and control
- C. Distributed enforcement
- D. Integrated actionable intelligence
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Central command and control refers to a unified, centralized security policy and management platform that integrates and coordinates all security components-regardless of physical location or form factor (virtual, physical, cloud). It streamlines operations, reduces overhead, and improves visibility and control.
* D is correct because central control simplifies policy enforcement and visibility.
* A (threat-centric protection) focuses more on response and defense rather than architecture.
* B (integrated actionable intelligence) refers to threat feeds, not central management.
* C (distributed enforcement) is an implementation strategy, not a management component.
NEW QUESTION # 116
An architect prepares a network design for a startup company. The design must be able to meet business requirements while the business grows and divests due to rapidly changing markets. What is the highest priority in this design?
- A. The network should be hierarchical
- B. The network should be scalable.
- C. The network should be modular.
- D. The network should have a dedicated core.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 117
An organization with 9000 users across 40 branches was using modem applications and their 15 years old network equipment failed several times to meet applications and users requirements.
The organization decided for some cost cuttings and to migrate some of applications to the public cloud. Which of the cost related benefits will this migrations and cost cutting realize?
- A. Capex
- B. ROI
- C. TCO
- D. OpEx
Answer: D
Explanation:
Migrating applications to the public cloud shifts spend from large up-front hardware purchases (CapEx) to pay-as-you-go operational expenses (OpEx).
This aligns with the scenario of replacing failed, aging equipment and doing cost cutting by using cloud services instead of buying new hardware.
NEW QUESTION # 118
Network design is the practice of planning and designing a communications network, but the used methodology or framework also plays a big part. What are two benefits of using an agile execution methodology? (Choose two.)
- A. Dedicated resources can work in parallel for their specific tasks.
- B. Results in better network designs using a holistic approach.
- C. Customer-focused, resulting in increased customer satisfaction.
- D. Straightforward planning and designing due to the agreement on deliverables at the start of the project.
- E. Flexibility in accepting and honoring on-going changes as the project progresses.
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
Customer-focused methodologies in agile emphasize collaboration and feedback, which leads to higher customer satisfaction.
Agile allows flexibility to incorporate ongoing changes throughout the project lifecycle, adapting the design as requirements evolve.
NEW QUESTION # 119
The CIA triad is foundational to information security, and one can be certain that one or more of the principles within the CIA triad has been violated when data is leaked or a system is attacked Drag and drop the countermeasures on the left to the appropriate principle section on the right in any order
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 120
Which management category is not part of FCAPS framework?
- A. Configuration
- B. Authentication
- C. Security
- D. Fault-management
- E. Performance
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 121
Company XYZ plans to run OSPF on a DMVPN network. They want to use spoke-to-spoke tunnels in the design. What is a drawback or concern in this type of design?
- A. Manual configuration of the spokes with the appropriate priority will be needed
- B. Manual configuration of the spoke IP address on the hub will be needed
- C. There will be split-horizon issue at the hub
- D. Additional host routes will be inserted into the routing tables
Answer: D
Explanation:
* A (Additional host routes):Spoke-to-spoke dynamic tunnels in DMVPN phase 3 result in OSPF populating routing tables with multiple /32 host routes for each spoke-to-spoke tunnel, which can impact scalability and routing table size.
Other options explained:
* B: Priority changes not typically required.
* C: Split-horizon issue is solved in DMVPN phase 3.
* D: Spokes dynamically register with the hub; no manual spoke IP configuration needed.
NEW QUESTION # 122
Identity and access management between multiple users and multiple applications has become a mandatory requirement for Company XYZ to fight against ever increasing cybersecurity threats. To achieve this, federated identity services have been deployed in the Company XYZ network to provide single sign-on and Multi-Factor Authentication for the applications and services. Which protocol can be used by Company XYZ to provide authentication and authorization services?
- A. OpenID
- B. OAuth2
- C. SAML2.0
- D. OpenID Connect
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 123
Company XYZ Is running a redundant private WAN network using OSPF as the underlay protocol.
The current design accommodates for redundancy. In the network, but it Is taking over 30 seconds for the network to reconverge upon failure.
Which technique can be Implemented In the design to detect such a failure in a subsecond?
- A. flex links
- B. STP
- C. fate sharing
- D. OSPF LFA
- E. BFD
Answer: E
NEW QUESTION # 124
Which purpose of a dynamically created tunnel interface on the design of IPv6 multicast services Is true?
- A. first-hop router registration to the RP
- B. transport of all IPv6 multicast traffic
- C. multicast source registration to the RP
- D. multicast client registration to the RP
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 125
What best describes the difference between Automation and Orchestration?
- A. Automation refers to an automatic process for completing a single task and Orchestration refers to assembling and coordinating a set of tasks and conditions.
- B. Automation refers to scripting languages (Python. Ansible etc.) and Orchestration refers to commercial products that control configuration deployment
- C. Automation describes a hands-off configuration process while Orchestration refers to sets of automation tasks that require the network administrator to coordinate
- D. Automation refers to an automatic process for completing multiple tasks with conditions and Orchestration refers to executing tasks in parallel.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 126
The SD-WAN architecture is composed of separate orchestration management, control, and data planes Which activity happens at the orchestration plane?
- A. central configuration and monitoring
- B. packet forwarding
- C. decision-making process on where traffic flows
- D. automatic onboarding of the SD-WAN routers into the SD-WAN overlay
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 127
Which service abstracts away the management of the operating system, middleware, and runtime?
- A. PaaS
- B. SaaS
- C. BMaaS
- D. IaaS
Answer: A
Explanation:
* B (Platform as a Service - PaaS): In a PaaS model, the cloud provider manages the operating system, middleware, runtime, and platform stack. The customer is only responsible for deploying and managing the application itself.
* This abstraction allows developers to focus on application logic without worrying about the infrastructure or platform details.
Other options explained:
* A (IaaS): Customer manages OS, middleware, and runtime; provider manages hardware and virtualization.
* C (SaaS): Customer simply consumes the application; all layers are managed by the provider.
* D (BMaaS): Bare Metal as a Service - customer has full control over hardware and all software layers.
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NEW QUESTION # 128
SDWAN networks capitalize the usage of broadband Internet links over traditional MPLS links to offer more cost benefits to enterprise customers. However, due to the insecure nature of the public Internet, it is mandatory to use encryption of traffic between any two SDWAN edge devices installed behind NAT gateways.
Which overlay method can provide optimal transport over unreliable underlay networks that are behind NAT gateways?
- A. TLS
- B. GRE
- C. IPsec
- D. DTLS
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 129
Drag and Drop Question
Drag and drop the end-to-end network virtualization elements from the left onto the correct network areas on the right.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 130
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Cisco 400-007 is a highly sought-after certification exam that is designed for individuals who want to become Cisco Certified Design Experts (CCDE v3.0). 400-007 exam is designed to test the candidate's knowledge and skills in designing complex networks, providing solutions for network infrastructure, and implementing advanced technologies. Cisco Certified Design Expert (CCDE) Written Exam certification is widely recognized and respected in the networking industry, making it a valuable asset for any IT professional.
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